A trainee at Halden Group keeps confusing inherent risk with residual risk. Which statement correctly describes inherent risk?
- AThe risk to an objective before management takes any action to change its likelihood or impact. Correct
- BThe risk to an objective that remains once management's controls and responses are in place.
- CThe maximum amount of risk the organisation's board is prepared to accept in total overall.
- DThe variation around a target that management will accept before taking any further action.
Why A is correct: Inherent risk is the exposure to an objective before management acts to change its likelihood or impact, which is precisely what this option states.
Why B is wrong: This describes residual risk, the exposure left after controls operate, so a candidate who swaps the two terms is drawn here; it is not inherent risk.
Why C is wrong: This describes risk appetite or capacity, the total risk the board will accept, which is a chosen boundary rather than the pre-control exposure, so it is wrong.
Why D is wrong: This describes risk tolerance, the accepted variation around a target, which is a threshold and not the exposure measured before any controls, so it is wrong.