18 min read5 domains coveredFree practice, no sign-up
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) is the first of the two exams you pass to earn the A+ certification, the entry credential for a career in IT support and technician work. Core 1 covers the physical and connective side of computing: mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization and cloud, and the troubleshooting that ties them together. It is a foundational exam, but it is fact-dense and hands-on in flavour, so it rewards knowing exact specifications rather than general ideas.
It suits people starting out in desktop support, help desk, field service, and bench repair, as well as career changers who want a recognised first rung. No formal prerequisites exist, though CompTIA suggests some hands-on exposure to PCs and mobile devices. If you have built a PC, swapped a laptop drive, or set up a home network, parts of this will feel familiar; if not, the material is concrete and closable with focused practice.
The real exam mixes multiple-choice questions with performance-based and drag-and-drop items. This bank deliberately covers the multiple-choice core: single-best-answer scenarios where several options are plausible and only one is the best next action or correct specification. That is where most of the marks and most of the traps live, so practise reading a scenario and choosing the right port, standard, component, or step, then reading why each wrong option is wrong.
Core 1 tests exact specifications and the correct first action, not general familiarity: the right port number, the right standard, the right troubleshooting step, in order.
Difficulty
Foundational
Best for
Aspiring IT support technicians, help-desk and field-service staff, and career changers who want the recognised entry credential for hands-on IT work.
Prerequisites
None required. CompTIA suggests some hands-on experience with PCs and mobile devices; a little networking familiarity helps but is not assumed.
Maximum of 90 questions
Questions
90 min
Time allowed
675 / 900
Pass mark
$249
Exam cost (USD)
299
Practice questions
How this exam thinks
Core 1 questions reward precision and the correct order of action, and three habits separate a pass from a fail.
First, the exam wants the exact fact, not the general area. A networking question does not ask whether SSH is secure; it asks for the port, and 22 is right while 23 is Telnet and a trap. A storage question does not ask whether RAID protects data; it asks which level gives single-parity redundancy across three drives, and RAID 5 is right while RAID 0 is the plant. Read each option as a specific claim and check the number, the band, the pin count, or the level against what you know, because the distractors are built from adjacent, almost-right facts.
Second, when a scenario describes a problem, the exam usually wants the BEST or FIRST action, not any action that would eventually help. Two options are often both technically valid, but one is the correct next step given the constraint in the stem: back up before you rebuild a degraded array, establish a theory before you test it, verify full functionality before you document. The single-best trap is an option that is a real step performed at the wrong time.
Third, the exam keeps its six-step troubleshooting methodology in a fixed published order, and it tests whether you know that order cold: identify the problem, establish a theory of probable cause, test the theory, establish a plan of action and implement it, verify full system functionality and apply preventive measures, then document findings. A distractor that swaps testing a theory with implementing a fix, or that skips verification or documentation, is the classic methodology trap. Learn the sequence as a reflex so a reordered list jumps out.
What each domain tests and how to study it
The 220-1101 blueprint is split across 5 domains. Weights are the official share of the exam; see the official exam guide for the authoritative breakdown.
What you must be able to do. Identify laptop and mobile hardware, match a display or connectivity component to a symptom or requirement, and choose the correct port, standard, or accessory for a mobile scenario.
In one sentenceThe portable side of hardware: laptop internal components, display assemblies, and the ports, wireless links, and accessories that connect mobile devices.
Recall check: answer these from memory first
Name the laptop component that has failed when the built-in screen is black but an external monitor shows the desktop.
State the memory form factor used in most laptops and how many pins DDR4 and DDR5 versions carry.
Distinguish Bluetooth, NFC, and cellular tethering by the range and use case each fits.
What it tests. Laptop and mobile hardware: internal components you replace such as SODIMM memory, M.2 drives, batteries, and wireless cards; display components including the panel, backlight, inverter, digitiser, and webcam; and mobile connectivity and accessories, from Bluetooth and hotspot tethering to USB-C, Lightning, and docking stations. It checks that you can match a symptom to the failed part and pick the right connector or standard for a given device.
How to study it. Learn the laptop as a set of field-replaceable parts and the one symptom that points to each: no display but an external monitor works points to the panel or backlight, not the GPU; ghost touches point to the digitiser. Get the memory and drive form factors exact, because SODIMM versus DIMM and M.2 keying recur here and in the hardware domain. Drill the connectivity options so you can tell Bluetooth pairing from a cellular hotspot from NFC by what the scenario needs.
Easy to confuse
SODIMM versus DIMM memory. SODIMM is the shorter small-outline module used in laptops and small-form-factor PCs; DIMM is the full-length desktop module. They are not interchangeable, and the exam plants a desktop DIMM in a laptop scenario to see if you know the difference.
OLED versus IPS LCD panels. OLED pixels emit their own light so there is no separate backlight, while an IPS LCD is a liquid-crystal panel lit by a backlight. A dim-but-visible image points to a backlight or inverter fault on an LCD, a symptom that cannot occur the same way on OLED.
Digitiser versus display panel. The digitiser is the touch layer that senses input; the panel is what shows the image. Erratic or phantom touches with a perfect picture is a digitiser fault, whereas a cracked image with working touch is the panel, so the exam pairs the symptom to the correct layer.
Worked example from the 220-1101 bank
lock_openFree sampleMobile Devicesmedium
A technician is ordering replacement memory for a laptop that uses DDR4 SODIMM modules. How many pins does a standard DDR4 SODIMM have?
A260 pins, the standard edge-connector count used by DDR4 laptop memory modulescheck_circle Correct
B204 pins, the standard edge-connector count used by DDR3 laptop memory modules
C240 pins, the standard edge-connector count used by DDR3 desktop memory modules
D288 pins, the standard edge-connector count used by DDR4 desktop memory modules
Recognise that a DDR4 SODIMM uses 260 pins, distinguishing it from DDR3 SODIMMs and from desktop DIMM pin counts. SODIMMs are the compact memory form factor used in laptops, and JEDEC assigns each generation a distinct pin count so incompatible modules cannot seat; DDR4 SODIMM is standardised at 260 pins while DDR3 SODIMM is 204.
Why A is correct: Correct: JEDEC defines the DDR4 SODIMM with a 260-pin edge connector, distinct from the DDR3 SODIMM and from desktop DIMMs.
Why B is wrong: Tempting because 204 is a genuine SODIMM pin count, but it belongs to DDR3 SODIMM, not DDR4, so it is the wrong generation.
Why C is wrong: Tempting as a real DDR3 pin count, but 240 pins is a full-size desktop DIMM, not the smaller laptop SODIMM form factor.
Why D is wrong: Tempting because 288 is the correct DDR4 count, but it applies to the full-size desktop DIMM, not the laptop SODIMM.
What you must be able to do. Recall the well-known ports and protocols exactly, pair each 802.11 standard with its band and speed, and select the right network device, address, or service for a scenario.
In one sentenceThe networking core: TCP and UDP ports, the 802.11 wireless standards, network devices, and the addressing and services (DHCP, DNS, VLANs) that make a network work.
Recall check: answer these from memory first
List the ports for HTTP, HTTPS, SSH, Telnet, RDP, DNS, and SMTP from memory.
State which bands 802.11 b, g, n, ac, and ax each operate on.
Explain what a 169.254.x.x address tells you about a client's DHCP status.
What it tests. Ports and protocols by number and transport, the 802.11 wireless standards and their bands and throughput, network hardware such as switches, routers, access points, and firewalls, and the addressing and services that run a network: IPv4 and IPv6, APIPA, DHCP, DNS, and VLANs. Ports are the single highest-yield fact class in the whole exam, and secure-versus-insecure protocol choices appear throughout.
How to study it. Memorise the well-known ports until they are automatic, and pair each with its secure alternative: HTTP 80 against HTTPS 443, Telnet 23 against SSH 22, FTP 20 and 21 against SFTP over 22. Learn the 802.11 table as band-and-speed pairs, not just letters: ac is 5 GHz only, ax adds 6 GHz, b and g are 2.4 GHz. Then drill device and service questions so you can tell what a switch does that a hub does not, and when APIPA tells you DHCP has failed.
Easy to confuse
SSH port 22 versus Telnet port 23. SSH on 22 is the encrypted remote-shell protocol; Telnet on 23 is its unencrypted predecessor. The exam offers Telnet as a plausible-but-insecure answer and swaps the two ports, so remember 22 is the secure one and the lower-numbered port here is the safe port.
802.11ac versus 802.11ax band coverage. 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) operates on 5 GHz only, while 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6 and 6E) covers 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz. A stem that puts ac on 2.4 GHz is keyed wrong, so the band a standard supports is the discriminator the exam tests.
A switch versus a hub. A switch forwards frames only to the destination port using a MAC address table; a hub repeats every frame to every port. When a scenario wants to reduce collisions or segment traffic, the switch is the answer and the hub is the legacy trap.
Worked example from the 220-1101 bank
lock_openFree sampleNetworkingmedium
Which statement correctly distinguishes TCP from UDP as transport-layer protocols?
ATCP is connection-oriented and uses a three-way handshake to provide ordered, reliable delivery, whereas UDP is connectionless and sends datagrams without acknowledgement.check_circle Correct
BUDP opens a session with a three-way handshake and retransmits any lost segments, while TCP sends datagrams with no acknowledgement.
CBoth TCP and UDP guarantee reliable in-order delivery and differ only in the range of well-known port numbers each is allowed to use.
DTCP is connectionless and therefore faster for streaming, while UDP is connection-oriented and resends any packets that fail to arrive at the receiver.
Recognise that TCP is connection-oriented and reliable while UDP is connectionless and unacknowledged. TCP performs a three-way handshake and uses sequence numbers, acknowledgements, and retransmission to deliver an ordered, reliable byte stream. UDP omits all of that, sending independent datagrams with lower overhead but no delivery guarantee.
Why A is correct: TCP sets up a session and guarantees ordered delivery with acknowledgements and retransmission, while UDP is a lightweight connectionless protocol that trades reliability for speed.
Why B is wrong: This is tempting because both protocols are real transport protocols, but the attributes are reversed: the handshake and retransmission belong to TCP, not UDP.
Why C is wrong: This sounds reasonable because both use the same well-known port space, but only TCP guarantees reliable ordered delivery; UDP makes no such guarantee.
Why D is wrong: The connectionless-versus-connection-oriented labels are swapped here: UDP is the connectionless one, and TCP is the protocol that resends lost packets.
What you must be able to do. Match RAM, storage, motherboard, connector, and power specifications exactly, and choose the correct component or interface for a build or repair given real constraints.
In one sentenceThe largest hardware domain: RAM and storage specifications, motherboards and CPUs, cables and connectors, power supplies, and printers.
Recall check: answer these from memory first
State the minimum drive count and redundancy for RAID 0, 1, 5, and 10.
Explain the difference between an M.2 SATA and an M.2 NVMe drive in one line.
Name the seven steps of the laser printer imaging process in order.
What it tests. The physical building blocks: RAM types and their slots (DDR4 and DDR5, DIMM and SODIMM, ECC), storage and interfaces including SATA, NVMe, and M.2 keying plus RAID levels, motherboard form factors and expansion buses, cables and connectors, power-supply ratings and connectors, and printer types with the laser imaging process. It rewards knowing exact specifications, pin counts, and compatibility rather than general categories.
How to study it. This is the biggest domain, so spend the most time here. Build compatibility tables you can recall: DDR generations do not fit each other's slots, M.2 SATA and M.2 NVMe share a slot shape but differ in keying and protocol, and each RAID level has a fixed minimum drive count and redundancy. Learn the ATX power connectors and the laser imaging steps in order. Practise scenarios that ask for the correct component under a stated constraint, because two parts often fit and only one meets the requirement.
Easy to confuse
M.2 SATA versus M.2 NVMe drives. Both use the M.2 slot, but an M.2 SATA drive runs the SATA protocol at SATA speeds while an M.2 NVMe drive runs over PCIe lanes and is far faster. A slot accepting one does not guarantee the other works, so the keying and protocol, not the shape, decide compatibility.
RAID 5 versus RAID 10. RAID 5 stripes with single distributed parity and needs at least three drives; RAID 10 mirrors then stripes and needs at least four. When a scenario weighs capacity efficiency against rebuild safety, the level's parity-versus-mirror design is the discriminator the exam wants.
DDR4 versus DDR5 memory. DDR4 and DDR5 use physically different, non-interchangeable slots and keying despite both being 288-pin DIMMs. Installing DDR4 in a DDR5 board is the incompatibility trap, so the generation, not just the pin count, determines fit.
Worked example from the 220-1101 bank
lock_openFree sampleHardwaremedium
Priya is running a new data drop from a switch to a workstation that must support a 1 Gbps Ethernet link. She needs to terminate the twisted-pair cable with the correct plug. Which connector should she crimp onto the cable?
ARJ-11, the six-position plug commonly used to terminate copper runs feeding desktop network adapters
BRJ-45, the eight-position plug that terminates the four twisted pairs of an Ethernet patch or drop cablecheck_circle Correct
CF-type, the threaded coaxial connector used to terminate the run and land it on the workstation adapter
DDB-9, the nine-pin serial connector often crimped onto twisted-pair runs feeding network ports
Gigabit Ethernet over twisted pair is terminated with an eight-position RJ-45 connector, not the six-position RJ-11 telephone plug. Gigabit Ethernet transmits over all four twisted pairs, and only the 8P8C RJ-45 connector lands all eight conductors; RJ-11 exposes just the centre positions used for telephony.
Why A is wrong: RJ-11 is tempting because it looks like a smaller Ethernet plug and uses the same crimp tooling, but it is a 6-position telephone connector and will not carry a Gigabit Ethernet link.
Why B is correct: RJ-45 is an 8P8C connector that lands all four pairs, which Gigabit Ethernet requires, making it the correct plug for a 1 Gbps drop.
Why C is wrong: F-type is plausible from cable-modem work, but it terminates 75-ohm coaxial cable, not twisted pair, so it cannot terminate an Ethernet drop.
Why D is wrong: DB-9 is a legacy serial connector for consoles and peripherals, not a crimp-on Ethernet plug, so it cannot terminate a network drop.
What you must be able to do. Classify a cloud service and deployment model correctly, recognise the defining cloud characteristics, and match a client-side virtualization requirement to the right hypervisor type and resources.
In one sentenceThe cloud and virtualization concepts: the IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS service models, the deployment models, the shared characteristics, and client-side hypervisors.
Recall check: answer these from memory first
Distinguish IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS by what the customer manages in each.
Give a one-line difference between a Type 1 and a Type 2 hypervisor with an example of each.
Name the cloud characteristic that lets capacity scale up and down automatically with demand.
What it tests. Cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and who manages what in each, deployment models (public, private, hybrid, community), the defining cloud characteristics such as rapid elasticity, on-demand self-service, and measured service, and client-side virtualization including Type 1 versus Type 2 hypervisors and the CPU, memory, and firmware support a virtual machine needs.
How to study it. Fix the service models by the boundary of responsibility: IaaS gives you the virtual machine and you manage the OS up, PaaS gives you a platform and you manage only the app and data, SaaS gives you finished software. Learn the deployment models by who owns and shares the infrastructure. For virtualization, pin down that a Type 1 hypervisor runs on bare metal while a Type 2 runs on a host OS, and that hardware virtualization support must be enabled in firmware.
Easy to confuse
IaaS versus PaaS versus SaaS. The models differ by how much the provider manages: IaaS delivers infrastructure and leaves the operating system and up to you, PaaS delivers a managed platform so you handle only code and data, and SaaS delivers finished software. The exam describes a responsibility split and asks you to name the model it matches.
Type 1 versus Type 2 hypervisor. A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the hardware for servers and data centres; a Type 2 hypervisor runs as an application on top of a host operating system for desktop use. The presence or absence of a host OS beneath it is the single discriminator the exam tests.
Public versus private versus hybrid cloud. A public cloud is shared multi-tenant infrastructure, a private cloud is dedicated to one organisation, and a hybrid connects the two so workloads can move between them. The exam pairs a control, cost, or compliance requirement with the deployment model that satisfies it.
Worked example from the 220-1101 bank
lock_openFree sampleVirtualization and Cloud Computingmedium
Priya, a malware analyst, needs to run suspected malicious samples on her Windows laptop without letting them reach the host operating system or the corporate network. Which client-side virtualization use case does this describe?
AA test-bed VM, a snapshot-based clone used to trial application patches before rolling them out across production desktops.
BApplication virtualization, which streams a packaged app to the desktop so it runs without a local install or a full guest OS.
CA cross-platform VM, used mainly to run a different operating system such as Linux alongside the Windows host for compatibility.
DA sandbox, an isolated virtual machine used to detonate and observe untrusted code without exposing the host or production systems.check_circle Correct
Recognise that a sandbox is an isolated virtual machine used to safely run and observe untrusted or malicious code away from the host. A sandbox VM is deliberately isolated from the host and network so that code executed inside it, including malware, cannot escape to damage the physical machine or reach production systems, which is exactly what safe sample analysis requires.
Why A is wrong: Patch testing is a legitimate VM use, but its goal is validating updates, not deliberately containing hostile code, so it does not describe malware isolation.
Why B is wrong: App virtualization isolates one application from the host filesystem, but it shares the host kernel and is not built to safely detonate live malware.
Why C is wrong: Running a second OS for compatibility is a common VM benefit, but it says nothing about isolating and studying malicious samples, which is the stated need.
Why D is correct: A sandbox is a disposable, isolated VM whose whole purpose is to contain untrusted or malicious code so it cannot affect the host or the wider network.
What you must be able to do. Apply the six-step troubleshooting methodology in its published order, and diagnose the single most likely cause and best first action for hardware, storage, display, mobile, printer, and network symptoms.
In one sentenceThe largest domain: the six-step methodology and the diagnosis of real hardware, storage, display, mobile, printer, and network faults.
Recall check: answer these from memory first
List the six troubleshooting methodology steps in their published order.
State the correct first action when a critical RAID 5 array reports a drive pre-failure warning and has no recent backup.
Name the two subsystems to suspect first when a PC gives no POST and no display.
What it tests. The CompTIA best-practice troubleshooting methodology and its fixed order, plus applied diagnosis across the hardware surface: motherboard, CPU, RAM, and power symptoms, storage and RAID failures, video and display faults, mobile-device issues, printer problems, and wired and wireless network trouble. Nearly every item is a scenario asking for the most likely cause or the correct next action, so judgement about order and priority is the skill tested.
How to study it. Learn the six steps as a reflex and practise placing a described action at the right step, because reordering is the most common trap: you establish a theory before you test it, and you verify full functionality before you document. For applied faults, build a symptom-to-cause map: continuous beeps or no POST points to RAM or power, a clicking drive with a pre-failure warning means back up before you touch it, and a printer with faded output points to toner or the imaging drum. Always choose the safest correct first action under the stated constraint.
Easy to confuse
Establish a theory versus test the theory. Establishing a theory is forming a hypothesis about the probable cause; testing it is confirming or disproving that hypothesis, and only then do you plan a fix. The exam offers an option that jumps to implementing a solution before the theory is tested, which is the ordering trap.
Verify functionality versus document findings. Verifying full system functionality and applying preventive measures comes second to last; documenting findings, actions, and outcomes is the final step. An option that documents before verifying, or that skips verification, reverses the last two steps the exam expects.
A degraded RAID array versus a failed one. A degraded array has lost redundancy but is still serving data, so the priority is a backup before a risky rebuild; a failed array has lost more members than its parity can cover and data is gone. The exam tests whether you protect the still-readable degraded array before acting rather than triggering a rebuild that could finish it off.
Worked example from the 220-1101 bank
lock_openFree sampleHardware and Network Troubleshootingmedium
Priya reports that her Android phone, which comfortably lasted all day last month, now drops from full charge to flat by mid-afternoon even though her usage has not changed. Which action should a technician take FIRST to isolate the cause?
AReview the built-in battery usage statistics to identify which app or service is drawing the most power.check_circle Correct
BReplace the battery straight away, because a sudden change in runtime always means the cell has reached its charge-cycle limit.
CPerform a full factory reset to clear any rogue background process that might be consuming the battery.
DTurn off the Bluetooth and Wi-Fi radios and then watch whether the phone's battery life returns to normal.
When diagnosing sudden battery drain on a mobile device, identify the offending app or service using battery usage data before swapping hardware or wiping data. Battery usage statistics attribute power draw to specific apps and services, so they isolate the true cause first; replacing the battery or resetting the device acts before the problem is identified and can be both unnecessary and destructive.
Why A is correct: Correct: the battery usage screen breaks consumption down per app and service, letting the technician identify the problem before acting, which matches the first CompTIA troubleshooting step of identifying the problem.
Why B is wrong: Tempting because an ageing cell is a real cause of drain, but swapping hardware before any diagnosis skips the identify-the-problem step, and the absolute claim that it is 'always' the cell ignores common software causes.
Why C is wrong: Tempting because a reset can clear a misbehaving app, but it is destructive to the user's data and is applied before the offending process has even been identified, so it is far too aggressive as a first step.
Why D is wrong: Tempting because idle radios do use power, but this tests one narrow theory before a cause has been established and radios are rarely the sole driver of a sudden doubling in drain, so it is premature.
A study plan that works
Map the blueprint and set a date
Day 1
Read the official Core 1 exam objectives and the five domains with their weights. Book a provisional exam date now: a fixed date turns open-ended study into a plan and is the strongest predictor of actually sitting the exam.
Drill the high-yield facts (Networking and Hardware)
Weeks 1-2
These two domains carry the most single-fact marks. Memorise the well-known ports with their secure alternatives, the 802.11 band-and-speed table, the RAID levels, and the RAM and M.2 form factors until recall is instant. Use the recall prompts in this guide: cover the answer, retrieve from memory, then reveal.
Cover mobile devices and virtualization and cloud
Week 2
Learn the laptop as replaceable parts tied to symptoms, and lock the cloud service and deployment models plus the Type 1 versus Type 2 hypervisor split. These are lower weight and mostly conceptual, so a focused pass with practice questions secures them.
Master the troubleshooting methodology
Week 3
This is the largest domain. Learn the six steps in order until a reordered list looks wrong on sight, then drill applied symptom-to-cause scenarios across hardware, storage, display, mobile, printer, and network faults. Always pick the safest correct first action.
Practise on scenarios with worked explanations
Week 4
Move to full practice sets and read the explanation for every question, including the ones you got right. The exam rewards choosing the best action among plausible options, so understanding why each distractor is wrong is where the marks are.
Find and close your weak domains
Week 4
Use your per-domain accuracy to drill the areas dragging you down rather than re-reading what you already know. Ports, RAID, and methodology ordering are common weak spots; repeat until every domain clears the pass line with margin.
Sit a timed mock and review it
Week 5
Take at least one full timed mock to rehearse pacing and flag-and-return. Treat the score as a per-domain readiness signal, then review every missed question before booking or sitting.
Know when you're ready
Readiness for Core 1 is a score on questions you have not seen before, not a feeling that the material is familiar. Those are different things, and the gap between them is where people fail. Re-reading a ports table builds fluency, and fluency feels like knowledge, so confidence rises while real recall does not. The fix is to test yourself: if you can produce the port number, the correct band, or the next troubleshooting step from memory and explain why the wrong options are wrong, you know it; if you can only recognise the right answer when you see it, you do not yet.
Because Core 1 is fact-dense, weak recall hides well behind familiarity. A first pass over the material feels like mastery until a scenario asks for the exact port or the correct first action and the specific fact is not there. Trust your measured per-domain accuracy over your gut, and set the bar at clearing every domain comfortably on unseen questions across more than one session, not scraping the pass mark once.
This guide gives you the map. The practice bank is where you find out whether you can navigate it, with a worked explanation and a reason every distractor is wrong on every question. Readiness scoring tells you when you are there. Not before.
Ready to put this into practice?
Free 220-1101 questions with worked explanations. No sign-up.
Read the last line of the question first. It tells you what is actually being asked, so you can read the scenario looking for the answer rather than memorising every detail.
For a problem scenario, choose the BEST or FIRST action, not any action that helps. Two options are often both valid; the exam wants the correct next step given the constraint in the stem.
Check the exact number. A wrong port, a mispaired 802.11 band, or a wrong RAID minimum is the most common plant, so verify the specific figure in each option.
Know the six troubleshooting steps in order cold. A distractor that swaps testing a theory with implementing a fix, or that skips verification or documentation, is the classic methodology trap.
When data is at risk, back up before you rebuild. A degraded RAID array or a failing drive wants a backup first; an option that rebuilds or clones before securing the data is the unsafe trap.
Eliminate two options fast. Most questions have two clearly weaker choices; removing them turns a guess into a coin flip at worst and buys time for the hard items.
Frequently asked questions
Is CompTIA A+ Core 1 hard?
It is a foundational exam with no formal prerequisites, but it is fact-dense and hands-on in flavour. The difficulty is in recalling exact specifications and choosing the best action among plausible options, which is why scenario practice with worked explanations matters more than reading definitions.
How long should I study for 220-1101?
Most candidates with some hands-on exposure are ready in four to six weeks of focused study. Less experience means more time on networking and hardware, which carry the most single-fact marks, and on the troubleshooting methodology.
Do I need both Core 1 and Core 2 to get A+ certified?
Yes. The A+ certification requires passing both 220-1101 (Core 1) and 220-1102 (Core 2). Core 1 covers hardware, networking, mobile, virtualization, and hardware troubleshooting; Core 2 covers operating systems, security, software, and operational procedures.
What is the pass mark for 220-1101?
The exam is scored on a scaled range and the published pass mark is in the facts panel above. Scoring is scaled, so your raw percentage and the scaled score are not the same thing; aim to clear every domain comfortably in practice rather than scraping a target.
Which domains should I focus on?
Hardware and Hardware and Network Troubleshooting together make up more than half the exam, and Networking adds the highest-yield single facts such as ports and wireless standards. Mobile devices and virtualization and cloud are smaller and largely conceptual.
Does this bank cover the performance-based and drag-and-drop questions?
This bank focuses on the multiple-choice core, where most marks and traps live, with a worked explanation and a per-distractor rationale on every question. The live exam also includes performance-based and drag-and-drop items; the concepts you drill here are exactly what those item types test in a different format.
How many practice questions should I do before booking?
Enough that every domain clears the pass line with margin on questions you have not seen before, and that a full timed mock feels comfortable on pacing. Quality of review matters more than raw volume: read the explanation on every question, including the ones you answered correctly.
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Examworthy is not affiliated with or endorsed by CompTIA. This guide is original study material based on the public exam blueprint. We never reproduce live exam items. 220-1101 and related marks belong to their respective owners.
