Free ITIL-4 practice questions

According to ITIL 4, which statement most precisely describes the relationship between a problem and a known error?

• AA known error is a problem that has been analysed but not resolved, so its cause is understood even though no permanent fix has been applied.check_circle Correct
• BA known error is a problem that has been permanently resolved, so the underlying cause can no longer generate any further incidents.
• CA known error is any incident that has recurred often enough for the service desk to recognise it and apply a scripted response.
• DA known error is a problem awaiting analysis, recorded so that investigation can begin once resources become available.

Why A is correct: This matches the ITIL 4 definition: a known error is a problem for which analysis has established the cause, but which remains unresolved because a permanent fix is not yet in place.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because both terms sit within problem management, but a resolved problem is closed, not a known error; the known error status specifically means the cause is understood while the problem is still open.

Why C is wrong: A recurring incident may prompt problem management to investigate, but a known error is a state of a problem, not a repeated incident, so this confuses the incident and problem practices.

Why D is wrong: This inverts the sequence: a problem awaiting analysis has no established cause, whereas a known error is defined precisely by the analysis having already been done.

In ITIL 4, which definition correctly captures what an incident is?

• AA cause, or potential cause, of one or more disruptions to a service that has yet to be investigated.
• BAn unplanned interruption to a service, or a reduction in the quality of a service.check_circle Correct
• CThe addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services.
• DA planned reduction in service quality agreed with users so that maintenance can be carried out safely.

Why A is wrong: This is the definition of a problem, not an incident; it describes the underlying cause that problem management investigates rather than the disruption itself.

Why B is correct: This is the ITIL 4 definition of an incident: it captures both a full interruption and a reduction in quality, and the word unplanned distinguishes it from scheduled maintenance.

Why C is wrong: This is the ITIL 4 definition of a change, which belongs to change enablement; it is tempting because changes can trigger incidents, but the two are distinct concepts.

Why D is wrong: This is wrong precisely because an incident is unplanned; an agreed, scheduled reduction in service is not an incident even though it also affects quality.

Which statement best expresses the difference in purpose between incident management and problem management in ITIL 4?

• AIncident management identifies and controls the underlying causes of failures, while problem management restores service to users as quickly as possible.
• BIncident management and problem management share the single purpose of implementing permanent fixes for every service failure that is reported.
• CIncident management aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible, while problem management aims to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by managing their causes.check_circle Correct
• DIncident management schedules the deployment of new service components, while problem management approves the release of those components into live use.

Why A is wrong: This swaps the two purposes; identifying underlying causes belongs to problem management, and rapid restoration belongs to incident management.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because the practices are closely linked, but they have distinct purposes, and incident management is not obliged to deliver a permanent fix; a workaround that restores service can be sufficient.

Why C is correct: This states both purposes correctly: incident management prioritises rapid restoration, and problem management works on the causes to prevent recurrence and limit impact.

Why D is wrong: Both halves describe release and deployment activities rather than incident or problem management, so this confuses unrelated practices.

In ITIL 4, which statement most precisely describes the purpose of the change enablement practice?

• ATo move new and changed hardware, software, and other components into live environments so that they are available for use as agreed.
• BTo make new and changed services and features available for use, coordinating the point at which functionality is released to users.
• CTo maximise the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks are properly assessed, changes are authorised, and a change schedule is managed.check_circle Correct
• DTo ensure that accurate and reliable information about configuration items and their relationships is available when and where it is needed.

Why A is wrong: Tempting because moving components into live environments is a core delivery activity, but this describes the deployment management practice, not change enablement, which is concerned with authorising and scheduling change.

Why B is wrong: Tempting because it sounds like a change reaching users, but this is the purpose of release management, which governs when functionality becomes available, whereas change enablement governs whether the change is authorised at all.

Why C is correct: This matches the ITIL 4 purpose of change enablement: it balances the need to make beneficial changes against the need to protect customers and users from the adverse effects of change through risk assessment, authorisation and scheduling.

Why D is wrong: Tempting because configuration data supports change decisions, but this is the purpose of service configuration management; change enablement uses that information rather than being defined by maintaining it.

According to ITIL 4, which pair correctly distinguishes the purpose of release management from the purpose of deployment management?

• ARelease management authorises whether a change may proceed, while deployment management assesses the risk that the change presents to live services.
• BRelease management moves components into live environments, while deployment management decides the moment at which users may begin using new features.
• CRelease management records the configuration items affected, while deployment management maintains the definitive record of authorised changes.
• DRelease management makes new and changed services and features available for use, while deployment management moves new or changed components to live environments.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: Tempting because both ideas are real ITIL activities, but authorising change and assessing its risk both belong to change enablement, not to release or deployment management.

Why B is wrong: Tempting because it uses the right vocabulary, but the two purposes are swapped: moving components is deployment and controlling availability to users is release.

Why C is wrong: Tempting because releases and deployments do generate configuration records, but recording configuration items is service configuration management and holding the authorised-change record relates to change enablement, not to these two practices.

Why D is correct: This states the ITIL 4 purposes correctly: release management controls when functionality becomes available to users, whereas deployment management moves the components themselves into the target environment, and the two can happen at different times.

Which statement best captures the purpose of the information security management practice in ITIL 4?

• ATo protect the information needed by the organisation to conduct its business, covering confidentiality, integrity, and availability along with authentication and non-repudiation.check_circle Correct
• BTo obtain value for money from suppliers and ensure that they meet the targets set out in their contracts and agreements.
• CTo ensure that the organisation understands and delivers the agreed levels of service to customers and monitors them against targets.
• DTo ensure that accurate and reliable information about configuration items is available so that risks to information can be identified.

Why A is correct: This matches the ITIL 4 purpose of information security management, which protects the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information and includes authentication and non-repudiation.

Why B is wrong: Tempting because supplier contracts often include security clauses, but managing suppliers and their contractual targets is the purpose of supplier management, not information security management.

Why C is wrong: Tempting because agreed service levels can include security measures, but defining, agreeing and monitoring service targets is the purpose of service level management.

Why D is wrong: Tempting because good security decisions rely on knowing the assets involved, but maintaining reliable configuration information is the purpose of service configuration management, which supports rather than defines information security.

In ITIL 4, the guiding principles are described as universal recommendations. What does describing them as universal recommendations most precisely mean?

• AThey are mandatory rules that every organisation must adopt in full before any other ITIL guidance can be used.
• BThey apply only to organisations that are adopting ITIL for the very first time.
• CThey apply only when an organisation is designing a brand new service from scratch.
• DThey can guide an organisation in almost all circumstances, regardless of changes to its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: Tempting because the word principle can sound like an enforceable rule, but it is wrong: the guiding principles are recommendations, not mandatory controls, and ITIL does not require full adoption of all of them before other guidance applies.

Why B is wrong: Tempting because guidance is often framed as adoption advice, but it is wrong: the principles are universal and continue to apply to established and experienced service providers, not just newcomers.

Why C is wrong: Tempting because design work is a natural place to use guidance, but it is wrong: universal recommendations apply across all types of initiative and situation, not only new service design.

Why D is correct: Correct: universal means the principles hold across situations, so they remain useful whether an organisation changes its objectives, strategy, working practices, or structure.

According to ITIL 4, how should an organisation apply the set of guiding principles when facing a particular situation?

• AEach principle should be considered to decide how relevant it is, since although every principle should be reviewed, not all will be equally relevant in every situation.check_circle Correct
• BOnly the single principle that appears most relevant should be used, and the remaining principles should be ignored entirely.
• CThe principles must be applied strictly in the fixed order in which they are published, one after another.
• DAn organisation should permanently commit to one chosen principle and treat the others as optional extras.

Why A is correct: Correct: ITIL 4 advises reviewing all of the guiding principles for a given situation and judging their relevance, accepting that some will matter more than others in a specific context.

Why B is wrong: Tempting because focusing on one priority feels efficient, but it is wrong: ITIL 4 says every principle should be considered, even if it ultimately proves less relevant, rather than discarding the rest outright.

Why C is wrong: Tempting because ordered checklists feel rigorous, but it is wrong: the guiding principles are not a sequential procedure and carry no mandated order of application.

Why D is wrong: Tempting because it sounds like a way to keep focus, but it is wrong: the principles are meant to be used together and weighed per situation, not reduced to one permanent choice.

Which statement best describes the nature of a guiding principle in ITIL 4?

• AA step-by-step procedure that specifies exactly which tasks must be performed to deliver a service.
• BA recommendation that can guide an organisation in all circumstances and help it make good decisions.check_circle Correct
• CA performance metric used to measure whether a service has met its agreed targets.
• DA mandatory governance control that an external auditor must verify for compliance.

Why A is wrong: Tempting because organisations do need procedures, but it is wrong: a guiding principle is high-level guidance, not a detailed procedure prescribing specific tasks.

Why B is correct: Correct: ITIL 4 defines a guiding principle as a recommendation that guides an organisation in all circumstances, supporting sound decisions and actions.

Why C is wrong: Tempting because measurement is central to service management, but it is wrong: a guiding principle is advice on how to act, not a metric or target.

Why D is wrong: Tempting because governance and audit are real concerns, but it is wrong: guiding principles are recommendations rather than mandatory controls subject to compliance audit.

According to ITIL 4, which statement most precisely captures the definition of a service?

• AA tangible product delivered to a customer in exchange for an agreed fee under a formal contract.
• BA set of specialised organisational capabilities for enabling value to customers in the form of services.
• CA means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.check_circle Correct
• DA documented request from a user for something to be provided, such as access or information.

Why A is wrong: It is tempting because many services are indeed paid for and governed by contracts, but ITIL 4 defines a service by the value it enables rather than by tangibility or a fee, and it is explicitly not limited to physical products.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because it is genuine ITIL wording, but it is the definition of service management, not of a service itself, so it answers a different question.

Why C is correct: This is the ITIL 4 definition of a service: it enables value co-creation by facilitating the customer's desired outcomes while the provider carries specific costs and risks on the customer's behalf.

Why D is wrong: This resembles the definition of a service request, which is one interaction within service delivery, and it is far narrower than what a service is in ITIL 4.

In ITIL 4, which description correctly characterises the warranty of a service?

• AThe functionality offered by a service that supports a particular task or removes a constraint for the user.
• BThe financial guarantee that a customer will be refunded if agreed service targets are breached.
• CThe written contract that records the specific service levels a provider commits to deliver.
• DThe assurance that a service will meet agreed requirements, covering aspects such as availability, capacity, security, and continuity.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because it is a real ITIL 4 concept, but it describes utility, or fitness for purpose, which is what the service does rather than how well it is assured to perform.

Why B is wrong: It is plausible because breached targets can carry commercial penalties, but ITIL 4 warranty is about assurance of performance in use, not a refund or money-back promise.

Why C is wrong: This confuses warranty with a service level agreement; the agreement documents commitments, whereas warranty is the assurance of fitness for use that those commitments describe.

Why D is correct: Warranty is fitness for use: it is the assurance that a service performs as agreed, and it is commonly assessed through availability, capacity, security, and continuity of the service.

ITIL 4 distinguishes the roles of customer, user, and sponsor. Which statement correctly matches these three stakeholder roles to what each one does?

• AThe customer defines and agrees the requirements for a service, the user actually uses the service, and the sponsor authorises the budget for its consumption.check_circle Correct
• BThe customer uses the service day to day, the user defines and agrees the service requirements, and the sponsor authorises the budget.
• CThe customer, user, and sponsor are three interchangeable names for whoever holds the contract with the service provider.
• DThe customer authorises the budget, the user defines the requirements, and the sponsor uses the service in daily operations.

Why A is correct: This matches the ITIL 4 definitions precisely: the customer sets and agrees requirements, the user consumes the service, and the sponsor authorises the budget, though one stakeholder may hold several of these roles.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because all three roles are present, but the customer and user labels are swapped: defining requirements is the customer's role, while day-to-day use is the user's.

Why C is wrong: It is plausible because one person can hold more than one role, but ITIL 4 defines these as distinct roles with different responsibilities, not as synonyms for the contract holder.

Why D is wrong: This scrambles all three roles; authorising the budget is the sponsor's role, and using the service in daily operations is the user's, not the sponsor's.

In ITIL 4, which statement most precisely describes what the organizations and people dimension of service management covers?

• AThe workflows, controls, and sequences of activities that turn demand into value for consumers.
• BAn organization's structure, roles and responsibilities, staffing and competencies, and the culture that shapes how work is done.check_circle Correct
• CThe applications, data, and knowledge an organization needs, together with the relationships between those components.
• DThe organization's relationships with the other firms it depends on to design, deploy, and support its services.

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because coordinated work does involve people, but it describes the value streams and processes dimension, which is concerned with how activities are organised rather than with roles, structure, and culture.

Why B is correct: Correct: the organizations and people dimension covers formal structure and roles alongside the required skills, competencies, and the shared culture and leadership needed to deliver value effectively.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because staff use these assets daily, but it defines the information and technology dimension, not the human and structural factors that organizations and people addresses.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because external firms are staffed by people too, but it describes the partners and suppliers dimension, which concerns inter-organizational relationships rather than an organization's own people and culture.

ITIL 4 states that all four dimensions of service management are constrained by external factors summarised by the PESTLE model. What does this model represent?

• ASix internal governance controls that management applies to keep each dimension aligned with strategy.
• BA checklist of the practices most affected by regulation, ranked by their compliance risk.
• CPolitical, economic, social, technological, legal, and environmental factors that the organization must account for but does not fully control.check_circle Correct
• DThe stages a service passes through as it moves from strategy into live operation and retirement.

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because governance does align the dimensions, but PESTLE describes external influences the organization cannot fully control, not internally applied controls.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because legal and political forces do drive compliance, but PESTLE is a set of external factor categories, not a ranked list of ITIL practices.

Why C is correct: Correct: PESTLE names the six external influences that shape and constrain each of the four dimensions, factors an organization has to respond to rather than command.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because it sounds like a lifecycle, but PESTLE has nothing to do with service stages; it categorises external influences on the four dimensions.

Within the information and technology dimension of service management, which additional consideration does ITIL 4 specifically highlight beyond the technologies and data themselves?

• AThe contractual terms and service integration arrangements that govern externally sourced components.
• BThe definition of roles, reporting lines, and the competencies staff need to run the technology.
• CThe sequence of value chain activities the technology enables from demand through to a delivered outcome.
• DThe relationships between different information and technology components, and factors such as security and regulatory compliance for the information held.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because sourcing often involves technology, but contracts and integration of external providers belong to the partners and suppliers dimension, not information and technology.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because people operate the technology, but roles and competencies are part of the organizations and people dimension rather than information and technology.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because technology supports activities, but describing coordinated activity sequences is the concern of the value streams and processes dimension.

Why D is correct: Correct: ITIL 4 stresses that this dimension covers not just the assets but how components relate to each other and considerations such as the security, compliance, and appropriateness of the information managed.

In ITIL 4, which statement most precisely describes how the six activities of the service value chain relate to one another?

• AThey form a fixed linear sequence that always runs from plan through to deliver and support in the same order.
• BThey are interconnected activities that combine in different sequences to form value streams for specific scenarios.check_circle Correct
• CThey each operate independently, so an activity never passes inputs or outputs to any other activity.
• DThey can only be triggered by the engage activity, which must precede every other activity in every case.

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because the activities are often drawn left to right, suggesting a pipeline. It is wrong because the service value chain is explicitly non-linear: activities are used in different orders and combinations, not one mandatory sequence.

Why B is correct: Correct. ITIL 4 describes the value chain activities as interconnected, and value streams are specific combinations of these activities arranged to respond to a particular demand or scenario.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because each activity has a distinct purpose. It is wrong because the activities are interconnected and pass inputs and outputs between one another; isolation would defeat the point of a value chain.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because engage handles stakeholder demand, which often starts a stream. It is wrong because no single activity is a mandatory first step for all streams; any activity can act as an entry or exit point depending on the value stream.

In ITIL 4, what is a value stream in relation to the service value chain?

• AA permanent department that owns one service value chain activity and reports directly to service management.
• BThe financial income a service generates, tracked separately from the service value chain.
• CA specific combination of service value chain activities and practices designed to create and deliver a particular product or service.check_circle Correct
• DA fixed template of the six activities that every organisation must follow without variation.

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because organisations do assign ownership of work. It is wrong because a value stream is a flow of activity steps, not an organisational unit that owns a single value chain activity.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because the word value suggests money. It is wrong because a value stream describes the steps used to create and deliver value, not the revenue itself, and it is part of how the value chain is applied.

Why C is correct: Correct. ITIL 4 defines a value stream as a series of steps an organisation undertakes to create and deliver products and services, drawing on value chain activities and practices for a specific scenario.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because the value chain has a defined set of activities. It is wrong because value streams are tailored combinations of activities for specific scenarios, not one rigid template applied identically everywhere.

According to ITIL 4, which pairing correctly matches a service value chain activity to its purpose?

• AThe plan activity ensures that service components are available where and when they are needed to meet agreed requirements.
• BThe improve activity ensures that services are actually delivered and supported according to agreed specifications day to day.
• CThe obtain or build activity ensures that new and changed services meet stakeholder expectations for quality by moving them into live use.
• DThe engage activity ensures a good understanding of stakeholder needs, ongoing engagement, and good relationships with all stakeholders.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because planning sounds like arranging resources ahead of need. It is wrong because ensuring components are available where and when needed is the purpose of obtain or build; the purpose of plan is to give a shared understanding of vision, status, and improvement direction.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because improvement affects service quality. It is wrong because ensuring ongoing delivery and support against agreed specifications is the purpose of deliver and support, whereas improve ensures continual improvement across the value chain.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because obtain or build produces service components. It is wrong because ensuring services meet expectations and are moved into live use is the purpose of design and transition, not obtain or build, whose purpose is to ensure components are available when and where needed.

Why D is correct: Correct. The purpose of the engage activity is to provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs, transparency, and continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders.

In ITIL 4, which statement most accurately describes what the service value system (SVS) represents?

• AA linear sequence of activities that transforms incoming demand into finished products ready for release to consumers.
• BThe framework of authority an organisation uses to direct and control the way its service management practices operate.
• CA model describing how all the components and activities of an organisation work together to facilitate value creation through IT-enabled services.check_circle Correct
• DThe complete set of management practices an organisation applies to design, deliver, operate, and improve its services.

Why A is wrong: This is tempting because the SVS does turn demand into value, but it wrongly casts the SVS as a fixed linear sequence. That description fits an oversimplified view of the service value chain, which is itself only one component of the SVS and is deliberately non-linear.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because directing and controlling the organisation is genuinely part of the SVS, but it describes governance specifically. Governance is only one of the five SVS components, not the whole system.

Why C is correct: Correct. The SVS is defined as the way the organisation's components and activities combine to enable value co-creation via IT-enabled services, taking opportunity and demand as inputs and producing value as the output.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because practices are central to service management, but it narrows the SVS down to just its practices component. The SVS is broader, also including guiding principles, governance, the service value chain, and continual improvement.

Which set correctly lists the five components of the ITIL 4 service value system?

• APlan, improve, engage, design and transition, obtain or build, and deliver and support.
• BOrganisations and people, information and technology, partners and suppliers, and value streams and processes.
• COpportunity, demand, value, guiding principles, and governance.
• DGuiding principles, governance, the service value chain, practices, and continual improvement.check_circle Correct

Why A is wrong: These are the six activities of the service value chain, not the components of the SVS. The value chain is itself one component of the SVS, so listing its internal activities confuses a part with the whole.

Why B is wrong: These are the four dimensions of service management, which apply across everything ITIL describes. They are a distinct model from the SVS components and do not belong in this list.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because guiding principles and governance are genuine SVS components, but opportunity, demand, and value are the inputs and output of the SVS, not components of it.

Why D is correct: Correct. These are the five components ITIL 4 defines as making up the service value system, working together to convert opportunity and demand into value.

The ITIL 4 service value system responds to two distinct inputs. How do 'opportunity' and 'demand' differ?

• AOpportunity represents options or possibilities to add value for stakeholders, whereas demand is the need or desire for products and services among consumers.check_circle Correct
• BOpportunity is the need or desire for products and services from consumers, whereas demand is a set of possibilities to add value for stakeholders.
• COpportunity is the measurable value delivered to a consumer, whereas demand is the cost the provider incurs to deliver that value.
• DOpportunity and demand are two names for the same input, describing consumer requirements that trigger the service value chain.

Why A is correct: Correct. ITIL 4 defines opportunity as the possibilities to add value or otherwise improve the organisation, and demand as the need or desire for products and services from internal and external consumers.

Why B is wrong: This is tempting because it uses the right vocabulary, but it reverses the two definitions. Demand, not opportunity, is the need or desire for products and services.

Why C is wrong: This is tempting because value and cost are real ITIL concerns, but neither input is defined this way. Value is the output of the SVS, not an input, and demand is not a cost measure.

Why D is wrong: This is tempting because both inputs do feed the SVS, but ITIL 4 treats them as deliberately distinct. Opportunity is about possibilities to improve, while demand is about consumers wanting products and services.