PMI Project Management Professional (PMP) practice questions

A project depends on a specialised soldering process that the team has never performed, and analysis shows a real chance the in-house attempt will fail and delay the schedule. A certified subcontractor will perform the same work under a fixed-price contract that makes the vendor liable for rework. Which risk response does engaging that subcontractor represent?

• ATransfer, because a fixed-price contract shifts the financial consequence of the threat to a third party better able to bear it.check_circle Correct
• BMitigate, because the fixed-price contract reduces the probability that the soldering defect will occur on the project.
• CAvoid, because using a subcontractor removes the soldering scope and the associated threat from the project entirely.
• DAccept, because the team acknowledges the threat and relies on the subcontractor to deal with the outcome if it happens.

Why A is correct: Transfer moves the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party without eliminating the threat. A fixed-price contract with rework liability is a textbook transfer mechanism.

Why B is wrong: Mitigation lowers the probability or impact while the team retains ownership of the threat. Here ownership of the consequence, including rework liability, passes to a third party, so the response is transfer rather than mitigation.

Why C is wrong: Avoidance eliminates the threat, often by removing or changing the scope. The soldering work still happens and the threat still exists; it has simply been moved to a party better able to bear it, which is transfer.

Why D is wrong: Acceptance takes no proactive action to change exposure and is tempting because the team is no longer doing the work. Signing a contract that reassigns liability is a deliberate proactive action, so it is transfer.

During execution the project manager identifies an opportunity: a supplier has just released a component that could let the team deliver a key feature two weeks early and win an incentive bonus. The team lacks the skill to integrate it, but a partner firm has that expertise and would take an agreed slice of the bonus in return for doing the integration. Which response to the opportunity does this arrangement represent?

• AEnhance, because bringing in the partner increases the probability that the early-delivery opportunity will actually be realised.
• BShare, because ownership of the opportunity is allocated to a partner best able to capture the benefit, with the reward split between the parties.check_circle Correct
• CExploit, because the response is designed to make the early-delivery opportunity certain to be captured by the project.
• DAccept, because the team welcomes the opportunity but takes no action to pursue it beyond noting the possibility.

Why A is wrong: Enhance raises the probability or positive impact while the team keeps ownership. It is tempting because the partner does improve the odds, but ownership and the reward are being shared with a third party, which makes this share.

Why B is correct: Share is the opportunity response that assigns ownership to a third party better positioned to realise the upside, splitting the benefit. Bringing in a partner for an agreed slice of the bonus is exactly this.

Why C is wrong: Exploit seeks to make an opportunity certain and keeps the benefit wholly within the project. It is attractive because the goal is to secure the bonus, but the benefit is deliberately split with an external partner, so the response is share.

Why D is wrong: Acceptance takes no proactive step to pursue the upside. Engaging a partner under an agreed benefit split is a clear proactive action, so acceptance does not describe what has happened here.

A client has asked for a basic reporting dashboard with a small number of standard charts and no advanced analytics. The delivered dashboard is deliberately simple, yet it displays every figure accurately, refreshes on schedule, and never crashes. A reviewer complains that the product is low quality because it lacks the rich features of a premium analytics suite. How should the project manager most accurately characterise the dashboard?

• AIt is low grade because it has few features, and low grade means the deliverable has failed its quality requirements.
• BIt is low quality because a premium analytics suite would offer far more capability than this dashboard currently provides.
• CIt is low grade but high quality, because it meets the agreed requirements reliably despite offering only a modest feature set.check_circle Correct
• DIt is high grade but low quality, because the simple feature set cannot meet a demanding client without additional analytics.

Why A is wrong: This conflates grade with quality. Low grade is legitimate when few features are required, and it does not automatically mean poor quality, so treating the two as identical is the error the question targets.

Why B is wrong: Comparing against a richer product judges grade, not quality. It is tempting because more features feel better, but a product that meets its stated requirements accurately and reliably is high quality regardless of feature count.

Why C is correct: Grade reflects the level of features or characteristics; quality reflects conformance to requirements. A deliberately simple product that works accurately and reliably is low grade yet high quality, which is a fully acceptable outcome.

Why D is wrong: This inverts both terms. A deliberately simple product is low grade, not high grade, and reliably meeting the agreed requirements is high quality, so both halves of this statement are wrong.